No argumentative tone... honest question here... what is the basis for this 20 day rule for propagation down to the troposphere? When I go back through past events I don't see it. There may be examples of such, particularly 2003 which was used as a paradigm in a lot of the original literature, but over time it's my opinion that 03 has been proven to be largely a one off, and has not representative of a standard behavioral model. There's plenty of other examples of the propagation downward occurring on shorter, even much shorter timescales too. Or not propagating downward at all.
I don't think there is anything inherent in a SSW that determines if it will propagate downward and eventually weaken the PV, just that other signals are dominant and ultimately determine the fate of it. Also my opinion that the +GPH anomaly over the pole that drove down the record airmass may well have been associated with the U wind reversal that occurred in late jan, at 10 or so day lag. Or maybe it's just coincidence. Funny we didn't hear anything from the experts about an impending SSW (that did actually occur) when the wave2 and wave 3 signals spiked in mid Jan, now they're crowing for some unknown reason... hopefully the models are indeed onto something that I don't understand if that's the basis for the excitement.