Is this your conclusion from reading the paper as they do not make this statement, nor does their data support this. They say the ocular service "may" or "could" be the primary entry point based on ACE2 and TMPRSS2 expression and conjunctivitis, but that's not even close to demonstrating it's the primary mode of spread.
From the paper: "Although viral infection of ocular cells has not yet been reported in patients, a recent report found SARS-CoV-2 can infect conjunctival epithelium in an e x-vivo culture system"
"Infection of ocular surface cells could lead to the eye as being an important carrier, with ocular virus shedding constituting a significant mechanism for infection of other individuals." How so? What is the proposed mechanism? Eye to eye?